In a momentous announcement, the Government Medical College (GMC) Srinagar has set the stage for an exciting academic year for the aspiring paramedics of the B.Sc degree courses, Batch 2023. This announcement comes through a notification, No. 086 BOPEE OF 2023 Dated: 24-09-2023, where it’s stated that the classwork for the 1st Year B.Sc Paramedical Degree Courses Batch -2023 will commence from 01/11/2023 at 10:30 AM. This marks a significant milestone for all the students who have been eagerly waiting to kickstart their academic journey.
Understanding the Importance of the Announcement: The notification brings a wave of anticipation and excitement among the students who have been selected for the B.Sc Paramedical Degree Courses. It signifies the beginning of an enriching educational odyssey at one of the esteemed institutions in the region.
BSc Nursing Previous year Question Paper, Also download its PDF Version from the Link given in this Post, BSc Nursing Entrance Paper, Nursing Entrance test paper, BSc Nursing old question papers.
1). Trisomic Condition of Down’s Syndrome arises due to: A. Triploidy B. Crossing Over C. Non-disjunction D. Dicentric bridge formation
2). Which of the following experiments suggests that living organisms simplest could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter? A. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel B. Microbes did not appear in stored meat C. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter D. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
3). The evolution of similar characters in genetically unrelated species as they are subjected to similar environmental selective pressure is A. Homoplasy B. Heteroplasy C. Adaptive radiation D. Adaptation
4). Given: 1 = natural selection; 2 = variations and their Inheritance; 3 = survival of the fittest; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism, which of the following represents the correct The sequence of events in the origin of new species? A. 3,4,1,2 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 4,2,3,1
5). The correct sequence of stages in the The evolution of the modern man(Homo sapiens) is A. Homo erects, Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, modern man B. Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, cro-magnon man, homo erectus, modern man C. Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, modern man D. Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, cro-magnon man, modern man
6). Viral diseases have no cure because A. Viruses have no cell wall B. Viruses can multiply repeatedly within the host cell C. Presence of capsid D. Viruses Possess no cytoplasm
7). In lac insect the lac is produced from A. Abdominal Glands B. Dermal Glands C. Salivary Glands D. None of the Above
8). Compare the statements A and B Statement A: Ranikhet disease is the disease of poultry. Statement B: It is caused by a virus Select the Correct description A. Statement A is wrong and B is correct B. Both statements A and B are wrong C. Both statements A and B are correct D. Statement A is correct and B is wrong
9). Technique of production of monoclonal antibodies was developed by A. Fredrich Miescher B. Bentham and Hooker C. Milstein and Kohler D. Watson and Crick
10). Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause A. Cancer B. Increase in Blood pressure C. Reduction in Oxyden D. Retardation of growth of the foetus
11). Asexual reproductive structure of Hydra is A. Gemmule B. Bud C. Conidia D. None of the above
12). Which one of the following is not a primary egg membrane? A. Vitelline membrane B. Albuminous jelly C. Jelly envelope D. Zona pellucid
13). Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are A. Found in human ovaries B. A source of the hormone C. Characterized by a yellow colour D. Contributory in maintaining pregnancy
14). Correct sequence of hormone secretion from The beginning of menstruation is A. FSH, Progesterone, Estrogen B. Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone C. FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone D. Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
15). The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into the cavity of the seminiferous tubule is called A. Spermiogenesis B. Spermatogenesis C. Spermatocytogenesis D. Spermiation
16). Amniocentesis detects A. Deformity in brain B. Deformity in heart C. Hereditary disease D. All of these
17). Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle anaemia? A. lt cannot be treated with iron supplements B. lt is a molecular disease C. it confers resistance to acquiring malaria D. All of the above
18). A family has 5 daughters. The probability of 6th child being a girl will be A. 1 in 2 B. 1 in 5 C. 1 in 3 D. 1 in 6
19). Which of the following is sex-linked in human beings? A. Colour blindness B. Hepatitis C. Night blindness D. Malignancy
20). Sex Chromosome X & Y were discovered by A. Stevens and Wilson B. Bridges C. Mc Clung D. Henking
21). Which of the following traits is not characteristic of amphibians? A. Thin, scaleless skin B. Usually requires water for reproduction C. Amniote eggs D. Skin is used as a supplementary respiratory organ.
22). Members of class Reptilia are A. Homoiothermic and Amniotic B. Homoiothermic & Anamniotic C. Poikilothermic and Amniotic D. Poikilothermic and Anamniotic
23). Kaziranga National Park is situated in A. Assam B. Orissa C. Madhya Pradesh D. Andhra Pradesh
24). The term Protoplasm was coined by A. Purkinje B. Dujardin C. Hugo van Mohl D. Robert Hook
25). The cell theory was propounded by A. Mendel B. Schleiden and Schwann C. De Breze D. Darwin
26). Transcription and translation are normally Involved in A. Flow of extrinsic information B. Multiplication of DNA C. Synthesis of RNA D. Flow of intrinsic information
27). An Acidic amino acid is A. Leucine B. Lysine C. Aspartic acid D. Methionine
28). Flagella of prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells differ in A. Location in cell and mode of functioning B. Microtubular organization and type of movement C. MicroTubular organization and functioning D. Type of movement and placement in cell
29). Cell recognition and adhesion is facilitated by certain Components of the cell membrane. These components are generally A. Proteins and Lipids B. Glycoproteins and glycolipids C. Lipids only D. Proteins only
30). Golgi apparatus takes part in A. Carbohydrate synthesis B. Lipid synthesis C. Protein synthesis D. Oxidative phosphorylation
31). “Taxonomy without phylogeny is like bones without flesh” was remarked by A. John Hutchinson B. Takhtajan C. Oswald Tippo D. Bentham and Hooker
32). What is universal for sponges? A. Marine B. Calcareous spicules C. Radial symmentry D. High regenerative power
33). The mesogloea is A. Party cellular and partly fibrous B. Neither cellular nor fibrous C. Only fibrous D. Cellular
34). When cysticerci are present in pork it is called A. Cysticercosis B. Bladder worm C. Hydatid cyst D. Measly pork
35). The roundworm can be called specialized and not degenerate with reference to parasitism because A. It has a thick cuticle over its body which is resistant to the digestive juice of the host B. It has a straight and uncoiled alimentary canal C. Respiratory organs are absent D. It is dioecious
36). Nephridia of earthworm are analogous to A. Trachea of insects B. Gills of prawn C. Nematoblasts of Hydra D. Flame cells of Dugesia
37). What is common between silverfish, Scorpion, crab and honey bee? A. Compound eye B. Poison gland’ C. Jointed legs D. Metamorphosis
38). Among the following, an unmatched group is A. Sea pen, sea fan, coral and swimming bell B. Cuttle fish, shell fish, devil fish and squid C. Sea star, sea urchin, sea anemone and sea cow D. Globe fish, rat fish, gold fish and pipe fish
39). Autotomy is observed in A. Feather star B. Starfish C. Sea Cucumber D. Starfish and Feather Star
40). The heart of fishes is called venous or branchial heart because A. The heart sends blood to veins B. The heart contains only non aerated venous blood C. The heart contains only aerated venous blood D. The heart sends aerated blood to gills
41). Which of the following is Lucas reagent? A. ZnCl2/con HCL B. Br2/CCL4 C. Ammoniacal silver nitrate D. Cold Alkaline KMnO4
42). Which one of the following compounds converts Methyl magnesium Iodide to methane in one step? A. C2H4 B. C2H5CL C. C2H5OC2H5 D. C2H5OH
43). The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0 0C is A. 5.260cal/(molK) B. 0.526cal/(molK) C. 10.52cal/(molK) D. 21.04cal/molK)
44). Substance which is used to bring down the temperature in high fever condition are called A. Antiseptics B. Anti-Inflammatory C. Anti-bodies D. Antipyretics
45). The density (in gmL”1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid the solution that is 29% H2SO4(molar mass=98 g mol-1) by mass will be A. 1.64 B. 1.88 C. 1.22 D. 1.95
46). In the equation of state of an ideal gas PV=n RT, the value of the Universal gas constant would depend only on A. The nature of the gas B. The pressure of the gas C. The units of the measurement D. None of the above
47). The value of ∆H and S of a certain reaction is -400 kj mol-1 and -20 kj Mol-1 K-1 respectively. The temperature below which the reaction is spontaneous is A. 200K B. 200c C. 1000K D. 1200C
48). XeF2 is isostructural with A. ICl2- B. SbCl3 C. BaCl2 D. TeF2
49). What amount of dioxygen (in gram) contains 1.8 1022 molecules? A. 0.0960 B. 0.960 C. 9.60 D. 96.0
50). 10g of hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. The amount of water produced in this reaction will be A. 1mol B. 2mol C. 3mol D. 4mol
51). What is the quantity of electricity (in coulombs) required to deposit all the silver from 250ml of 1 M AgNO3 solution? (Ag=108) A. 2412.5 B. 24125 C. 4825.0 D. 48250
52). How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion? A. Six B. Three C. One D. Two
53). Which of the following types of metals from The most efficient catalysts? A. Alkaline earth metals B. Transition metals C. Alkali metals D. All of the above
54). The solubility of Ca3(PC4)2 in water is Y moles/litre. Its solubility product is A. 6y4 B. 36y4 C. 64y5 D. 108y5
55). Which of the following is not permissible? A. n=4, I=3, m=0 B. n=4, I=2, m=1 C. n=4, I=4, m=1 D. n=4, I=0, m=0
56). What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane? A. 1-Bromo-I, I-diethylmethane B. 3-Bromopentane C. 1-Bromo-I-ethypropane D. 1-Bromopentane
57). Chlorobenzene is formed by the reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction? A. Cl- B. Cl+ C. Alcl3 D. [AlCl4]-
58). Which of the following statements about primary Amines are ‘False’? A. Alkylamines are stronger bases than aryl amines B. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols C. Aryl amines are stronger bases than ammonia D. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce nitroarenes
59). The correct order of decreasing acid strength of Tricholoroacetic acid (A), acetic aicd (B) and formic acid (C) is A. A>B>C B. A>C>B C. B>A>C D. B>C>A
60). In which of the following reactions new carbon-carbon bond is formed A. Cannizzaro reaction B. Wurtz reaction C. Aldol condensation D. Friedel-Crafts reaction
61). Which one of the following is a covalent crystal? A. Ice B. Rock Salt C. Dry salt D. Quartz
62). 2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was synthesized on 1st Jan 2017. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st Mar 2017 (Including both the days) A. 1gm B. 0.5gm C. 0gm D. 0.125gm
63). The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate=K [A]n[B]m. on doubling the concentration of B, The ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be A. m+n B. n+m C. 2(n-m) D. I/(2m+n)
64). Bond order of the following molecules is zero? A. F2 B. O2 C. Be2 D. Li2
65). For the adsorption phenomenon, A. ∆H = +ve, ∆S = -ve B. ∆H = -ve, ∆S = +ve C. ∆H = -ve, ∆S = -ve D. ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve
66). Heterosis is A. Phenotypic expression of mutations B. Method of including mutations C. Superiority of hybrids over their parents D. A plant Disease
67). Which of the following chemical is mostly used for protoplast fusion: A. Polyethene glycol B. Sodium acetate C. Sodium chloride D. Sorbitol
68). The carting capacity of the population is determined by: A. Growth rate of population B. Limiting resources C. Mortality D. Natality
69). The biogeochemical cycle which is not gaseous is: A. Phosphorous cycle B. Carbon cycle C. Sulphur cycle D. Nitrogen cycle
70). Conservation within natural habitat is: A. In-situ conservation B. Ex-situ conservation C. In-vitro conservation D. Micropropagation
71). If a cell is placed in a sugar solution and no change occurs in it, the external solution is: A. Isotonic B. Hypertonic C. Hypotonic D. Colloidal
72). In angiosperms, translocation of sugar occurs in the form of: A. Sucrose B. Starch C. Lactose D. Glucose
73). Which of the following plant hormone stimulates growth in internodes? A. Auxins B. Gibberellins C. Cytokinin D. Abscisic acid
74). Embryo sac develops from: A. Microspore B. Megaspore C. Zygote D. Funiculus
75). Formation of seedless fruits is called: A. Parthenocarpy B. Parthenogenesis C. Fertilization D. Geitonogamy
76). The ratio of tall plants in a cross between heterozygous tall plants and dwarf plants will be: A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
77). Codon is made up of: A. Singel nucleotide B. Two nucleotides C. Three nucleotides D. Four nucleotides
78). The enzyme which joins Okazaki fragments is A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase II C. RNA polymerase D. Reverse transcriptase
79). Cheese is produced by: A. Fermentation B. Hydrolysis C. Dehydration D. All of the above
80). Ethanol is commercially produced by using species of : A. Alternaria B. Candida C. Saccharomyces D. Puccinia
81). Which of the following are called stone cells? A. Sclereids B. Parenchyma C. Collenchymas D. Chlorenchyma
82). Which of the following is not correct? A. Diffusion is a passive process B. No energy expenditure occurs during diffusion C. Diffusion is dependent on the living system D. Diffusion rates are affected by gradient of concentration
83). Which of the following is correct for active transport? A. It does not require special B. It is not selective C. It operates without using energy D. It results in uphill transport
84). How many electrons are released from water to release one molecule of oxygen during photosynthesis A. Four B. Six C. Two D. One
85). Apical dominance occurs due to: A. Auxins B. Cytokinins C. Gibberellins D. Abscisic acid
86). The innermost layer of anther is A. Endothecium B. Exothecium C. Tapetum D. Stomium
87). When pistils are fused together, it is called A. Syncarpous B. Apocarpous C. Multicarpellary D. Monocarpellary
88). To identify whether an organism exhibiting a dominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous for a specific allele, which cross is performed? A. Dihybrid cross B. Test cross C. Back cross D. Back cross E. None of the above
89). Cork cambium is also called A. Phellem B. Phelloderm C. Periderm D. Phellogen
90). The force which exists between the walls of xylem vessels and water is: A. Adhesion B. Cohesion C. Surface tension D. Capillary force
91). The correct sequence in taxonomic classification is: A. Class-family-order-genus-species B. Class-order-family-genus-species C. Order-family-class-genus-species D. Class-family-order-genus-species
92). Heterotrophic fungi which absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates are called A. Saprophytes B. Parasites C. Symbionts D. Autotrophs
93). Name ‘virus’ was coined by A. Huxley B. Robert Hook C. Lvanowsky D. Beijernick
94). Viroid consists of: A. DNA B. RNA C. Carbohydrate D. Protein
95). Food is stored as mannitol and laminarin in A. Rhodophyceace B. Chlorophyceace C. Phaeophyceace D. Chlamydomonas
96). Which of the following statements regarding bryophytes are not correct? A. The main body of bryophyte is haploid B. Antheridia develop on the main body C. The main body is sporophyte D. Sporophyte draws nutrition from the gametophyte
97). In mosses protonema is A. The last stage of gametophyte B. The first stage of gametophyte C. The leafy stage of moss D. Does not exist in the moss life cycle
98). Diplontic life cycle is present in: A. Gymnosperms B. Angiosperms C. Volvox D. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
99). Fascicular vascular cambium is A. A lateral meristem B. Apical meristem C. Also called cork cambium D. A permanent tissue
100). Which of the following are living cells? A. Vessels B. Tracheids C. Xylem fibres D. Xylem parenchyma
BSc Nursing Previous year question Paper PDF, Download Nursing Entrance old paper.
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, February 11, 2023: The AMT School in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, has announced that it will start its nursing and para medical classes from March 6, 2023. The school has issued orders for the same, and the classes are expected to be conducted as per the prescribed syllabus and schedule.
The AMT School, a premier institution in Srinagar, has a reputation for providing quality education and training to its students in the fields of nursing and para medical sciences. With the start of these classes, students from across the region will have the opportunity to receive education and training in these fields from experienced and highly qualified faculty members.
The courses offered by the school include Bachelor of Science in Nursing, Bachelor of Science in Para Medical Sciences, and Diploma in Nursing. The curriculum has been designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the subjects, along with hands-on experience through clinical rotations and laboratory sessions.
The AMT School is committed to providing quality education and training to its students and preparing them for successful careers in the nursing and para medical fields. With the start of these classes, students will have the opportunity to learn from experienced faculty members and gain the skills and knowledge needed to succeed in these fields.
Now the AMT School in Srinagar is set to start its nursing and para medical classes from March 6, 2023. This is a great opportunity for students in the region who are interested in pursuing a career in these fields.
Date Sheet for Theory examination for the session – 2021.
The examination of all eligible/Failure/Backlog/other eligible nursing/Paramedical Trainees of Government AMT/ ANMT Schools/GNM Schools/Private Paramedical/Nursing Institutes for Annual /Bi-Annual for the session 2021.
Now Enter your Application number and Admit card and press enter/submit.
Then save the Admit Card in PDF format or get the printed copy.
Scheme of Examination:
The Examination will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set in English only.
There will be a negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.
Tentative Answer Keys, in due course after the Examination, will be placed on the website of the Board (www.jkssb.nic.in).
Marks scored by candidates in the written test will be normalized if required, to determine final merit and cut-off marks.
JKSSB Examiation Hall Guidelines
In addition to the Roll Number Card/Slip, it is mandatory to carry at least two passport size recent color photographs, Original valid Photo-ID proof such as
JKBOPEE Paramedical Diploma Courses Admission 2021 | JKBOPEE GNM, ANM(FMPHW/MMPHW) Lab Assistant, Medical Assistant, etc. The admission submission process has begun.
Receipt of online application forms: 17 May 2021.
Last date for filling up the online application forms: 22 June 2021.
Fee Rs. 1000/- (Rupees one thousand only) to pay online through national Credit Card/Debit Card/Net Banking.
The syllabus for the examination/test is available in the e-brochure.
Date of Entrance Test: 19 of september.
The examination shall be conducted Offline by the Board.
The interested candidates have to upload the following scanned original / self-attested certificates in PDF format with size from 100-200 KB along with the Application Form:-
domicile of UT of J&K/UT of Ladakh as the case may be (Domicile Certificate).
Qualifying marks (12Thclass) certificate; ( where the result is declared)
Date of Birth Certificate(Matriculation Certificate issued by the Board.
Reserved category certificate, if any, and any other documents, as requested
ELIGIBILITY FOR ADMISSION
Eligibility criteria for the below-mentioned courses
Medical Assistant / Junior Pharmacist
Laboratory Assistant
Dental Assistant
Ophthalmic Assistant
X-Ray Assistant
ECG Technology
Anesthesia Technology
Sanitary Inspector
OTT Tech
ISM
Dialysis Tech
Physiotherapy
D Pharmacy
be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT or Ladakh
not have crossed maximum age 35 years old on 01-01-2021
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from recognized Board with Science subjects viz Physics, Chemistry, Biology (PCB) or Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics (PCM) and English securing minimum 40 % marks in aggregate.
be medically fit.
Eligibility criteria for GNM
be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT or Ladakh
not have crossed maximum age 35 years old on 01-01-2021
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from recognized Board with Science subjects viz Physics, Chemistry, Biology (PCB) or Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics (PCM) and English securing minimum 40 % marks in aggregate.
Registered ANM with 40% marks.
be medically fit.
For Lateral entry to GNM courses, candidates having a Diploma in FMPHW / MMPHW/ANM course registered with J&K Paramedical Nursing Council will be eligible for GNM course and
there will be no age bar for such candidates.
Eligibility criteria for ANM (FMPHW/MMPHW)
be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT or Ladakh
not have crossed maximum age 35 years old on 01-01-2021
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from recognized Board with Science/Arts and English securing minimum 40 % marks in aggregate.
Medical Record Technician Course in SKIMS Soura Srinagar
be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT or Ladakh
not have crossed maximum age 35 years old on 01-01-2021
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from recognized Board in any stream securing minimum 40 % marks in aggregate
Original Documents required at the time of Admission
Marks certificate of the qualifying examinations (12thclass marks certificate).
Date of birth (Matriculation / Secondary School Certificate) from a recognized Board.
Domicile Certificate for candidates belonging to UT of J&K and ST certificate as a Domicile for candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh.
Category Certificate, if any.
Any other document as may be required by the Institution.
JKBOPEE Admit Card for ParaMedical courses
The Notification for downloading of online/electronic Admit Card will be issued separately if the test is conducted. The Examination shall be conducted at Jammu / Srinagar simultaneously.
What is the last date for Form Submission?
22 June 2021.
Total No of Seats Available across J&K?
More Than 800 seats.
How to Apply for JKBOPEE Paramedical courses?
Follow the instructions given in this blog.
When will JKBOPEE conduct an entrance exam for Paramedical courses?
JKSSB Recruitment 2021, JKSSB New Posts 2021, JKSSB New 2311 Vacancies SSBJK Advertisement No 2 of 2021, ssbjk junior pharmacist recruitment, ssbjk Patwari recruitment, Junior Staff Nurse Posts, GNM, FMPHW, Medical Assistant, Revenue Department posts by jkssb, Floriculture, Gardens and parks department vacancies, Health and Medical education department recruitment.
Advertisement No: 2 of 2021
Department
No. Of Posts
General Administration
52
Revenue department
528
Health and Medical education department
1444
Cooperative department
256
Floriculture, Gardens and parks department
4
Department of law, justice, and parliamentary affairs
And in total 2311 Posts in all these departments by JKSSB, and all these posts will be filled through skill tests, & written tests.
The J&K Services Selection Board invites online applications from eligible candidates for participation in the selection process for District/Divisional/UT Cadre posts shown below.
Total Number of Posts Advertised = 2311
Recruiting Agency
JKSSB
Department
Revenue, GAD, Health, Floriculture, Gardens and Parks Department, Department of Law
Salary
25500-81100, 35000 – 127000
Qualification
12th, Diploma, Graduation,
Total vacancies
2311
Date of start for submission of online applications = 17 April 2021
Last Date for submission of online applications = 10 June 2021
Who can Apply for new 2311 posts:
The domiciles of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir can apply for these posts,
The candidates need to keep their Domicile certificates ready for the further process.
JKSSB Total no of posts you can apply for are 2311.
Vacancies:
All these posts are the UT, Divisional, & District cadre. Total Number of Posts Advertised = 2311
Age Limit JKSSB 2021 Recruitment
The requirement of age for Open Merit & various Reserved Categories candidates is as follows: –
Category
Age limit
OM
40
SC
43
ST
43
RBA
43
ALC/IB
43
EWS(Economically Weaker Section)
43
PSP (Pahari Speaking People)
43
Social Caste
43
Physically Challenged Person
42
Ex-Servicemen
48
Government Service/Contractual Employment
40
Application Fee:
(I) Fee payable: Rs 350/- (Rs Three Hundred Fifty only) (II) Fee can be paid only online through Net Banking, Credit or Debit cards.
JKSSB GMC Srinagar & Jammu Recruitment 2021
Name of the post
Cadre of the post
Total
Laboratory Technician
Div. Jammu
10
E.C.G Technician
Div. Jammu
10
Junior Physiotherapi st
Div. Jammu
3
X- Ray Technician/R adiology Technologist/ Junior Radiology Technician/R adiology Technician/C T Scan Technician
Div. Jammu
7
Junior Theatre Assistant
Div. Jammu
5
Junior Staff Nurse/Junior Grade Nurse
Div. Jammu
350
Carpenter
Div. Jammu
3
X-Ray Assistant
Div. Jammu
21
Telephone Operator
Div. Jammu
1
Senior Laboratory Assistant
Div. Jammu
10
Library Assistant
Div. Jammu
3
Medical Record Technician
Div. Jammu
12
Junior Pharmacist/ Medical Assistant
Div. Jammu
32
Junior Assistant
Div. Jammu
28
Driver–II
Div. Jammu
5
Receptionist
Div. Jammu
3
Driver-I
Div. Jammu
7
Junior Store Keeper
Div. Jammu
10
Injector
Div. Jammu
2
Tailor
Div. Jammu
2
Liftman/Lift operator
Div. Jammu
4
FMPHW / ANM
Div. Jammu
8
Barber
Div. Jammu
2
Junior Plumber
Div. Jammu
10
Junior Electrician
Div. Jammu
5
Laboratory Technician
Div. Kashmir
1
Junior Radiotherapy Technicians
Div. Kashmir
2
Senior Radiotherpary Tech
Div. Kashmir
4
Laboratory Technologist
Div. Kashmir
2
Speech Therapist
Div. Kashmir
1
Tutor/Clinical Instructor / Public Health Tutor
Div. Kashmir
6
Psychiatric Social Worker
Div. Kashmir
1
Steno Typist
Div. Kashmir
2
Junior Projectionist
Div. Kashmir
2
Junior Theatre Assistant
Div. Kashmir
43
Junior Staff Nurse/Junior Grade Nurse.
Div. Kashmir
146
Carpenter
Div. Kashmir
3
X-Ray Assistant
Div. Kashmir
14
Xerox Assistant
Div. Kashmir
1
Dark Room Assistant
Div. Kashmir
3
Anaesthesia Assistant / Anaesthesia Technician
Div. Kashmir
36
Laboratory Assistant
Div. Kashmir
14
Library Assistant
Div. Kashmir
2
C.S.S.D. Assistant
Div. Kashmir
1
Medical Record Technician
Div. Kashmir
6
Junior Pharmacist /Medical Assistant
Div. Kashmir
30
Junior Assistant
Div. Kashmir
9
Junior Laboratory Technician
Div. Kashmir
1
Receiptionist
Div. Kashmir
2
simliarly jkssb has advertised posts in various fields such as, Lab technician, junior assistant, MMPHW which you can check in the PDF File given below.
Check All posts in Health and Medical education department in JKSSB : Check Here
JKSSB Revenue department Total 2311 vacancies | 2021
Jr.Assistant
UT
3
Jr.Assistant
Jammu
9
Jr.Scale Stenographer
Udhampur
2
Jr.Assistant
Udhampur
24
Check all 528 vacancies in all districts by Revenue department: Click here
JKSSB Cooperative department | 2311 vacancies
Junior Assistant
Div.Jammu
1
Junior Assistant
Div.Kashm ir
6
Junior Assistant
Poonch
7
Junior Assistant
Srinagar
2
Junior Supervisor /Sub Auditor
Samba
7
Junior Supervisor /Sub Auditor
Kathua
18
Junior Supervisor /Sub Auditor
Udhampu r
12
Junior Supervisor /Sub Auditor
Reasi
9
JKSSB Revenue department 528 vacancies
About Exam:
Candidates who applied for the Vacancies of 2311 Posts announced by the J&K Services Selection Board (JKSSB) gave their Exam successfully. The Exam will be of Objective Type and it consists of Multiple Choices Questions (MCQ) only, the exam will be conducted for the Maximum of 100 Marks and the time allowed for this exam will be of 2 hours, and with negative marking of 0.25 marks.
JKSSB Admit Card:
Once the form submission process is complete, JKSSB will release the Hall tickets for these 2311 vacancies on different dates.
You can download your exam hall ticket for the written test, just enter your Application number and Date of Birth to download your admit card.
