BSc Nursing Previous year Question Paper, Also download its PDF Version from the Link given in this Post, BSc Nursing Entrance Paper, Nursing Entrance test paper, BSc Nursing old question papers.
1). Trisomic Condition of Down’s Syndrome arises due to: A. Triploidy B. Crossing Over C. Non-disjunction D. Dicentric bridge formation
2). Which of the following experiments suggests that living organisms simplest could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter? A. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel B. Microbes did not appear in stored meat C. Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter D. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
3). The evolution of similar characters in genetically unrelated species as they are subjected to similar environmental selective pressure is A. Homoplasy B. Heteroplasy C. Adaptive radiation D. Adaptation
4). Given: 1 = natural selection; 2 = variations and their Inheritance; 3 = survival of the fittest; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism, which of the following represents the correct The sequence of events in the origin of new species? A. 3,4,1,2 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 4,2,3,1
5). The correct sequence of stages in the The evolution of the modern man(Homo sapiens) is A. Homo erects, Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, modern man B. Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, cro-magnon man, homo erectus, modern man C. Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, modern man D. Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, cro-magnon man, modern man
6). Viral diseases have no cure because A. Viruses have no cell wall B. Viruses can multiply repeatedly within the host cell C. Presence of capsid D. Viruses Possess no cytoplasm
7). In lac insect the lac is produced from A. Abdominal Glands B. Dermal Glands C. Salivary Glands D. None of the Above
8). Compare the statements A and B Statement A: Ranikhet disease is the disease of poultry. Statement B: It is caused by a virus Select the Correct description A. Statement A is wrong and B is correct B. Both statements A and B are wrong C. Both statements A and B are correct D. Statement A is correct and B is wrong
9). Technique of production of monoclonal antibodies was developed by A. Fredrich Miescher B. Bentham and Hooker C. Milstein and Kohler D. Watson and Crick
10). Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause A. Cancer B. Increase in Blood pressure C. Reduction in Oxyden D. Retardation of growth of the foetus
11). Asexual reproductive structure of Hydra is A. Gemmule B. Bud C. Conidia D. None of the above
12). Which one of the following is not a primary egg membrane? A. Vitelline membrane B. Albuminous jelly C. Jelly envelope D. Zona pellucid
13). Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are A. Found in human ovaries B. A source of the hormone C. Characterized by a yellow colour D. Contributory in maintaining pregnancy
14). Correct sequence of hormone secretion from The beginning of menstruation is A. FSH, Progesterone, Estrogen B. Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone C. FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone D. Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
15). The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into the cavity of the seminiferous tubule is called A. Spermiogenesis B. Spermatogenesis C. Spermatocytogenesis D. Spermiation
16). Amniocentesis detects A. Deformity in brain B. Deformity in heart C. Hereditary disease D. All of these
17). Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle anaemia? A. lt cannot be treated with iron supplements B. lt is a molecular disease C. it confers resistance to acquiring malaria D. All of the above
18). A family has 5 daughters. The probability of 6th child being a girl will be A. 1 in 2 B. 1 in 5 C. 1 in 3 D. 1 in 6
19). Which of the following is sex-linked in human beings? A. Colour blindness B. Hepatitis C. Night blindness D. Malignancy
20). Sex Chromosome X & Y were discovered by A. Stevens and Wilson B. Bridges C. Mc Clung D. Henking
21). Which of the following traits is not characteristic of amphibians? A. Thin, scaleless skin B. Usually requires water for reproduction C. Amniote eggs D. Skin is used as a supplementary respiratory organ.
22). Members of class Reptilia are A. Homoiothermic and Amniotic B. Homoiothermic & Anamniotic C. Poikilothermic and Amniotic D. Poikilothermic and Anamniotic
23). Kaziranga National Park is situated in A. Assam B. Orissa C. Madhya Pradesh D. Andhra Pradesh
24). The term Protoplasm was coined by A. Purkinje B. Dujardin C. Hugo van Mohl D. Robert Hook
25). The cell theory was propounded by A. Mendel B. Schleiden and Schwann C. De Breze D. Darwin
26). Transcription and translation are normally Involved in A. Flow of extrinsic information B. Multiplication of DNA C. Synthesis of RNA D. Flow of intrinsic information
27). An Acidic amino acid is A. Leucine B. Lysine C. Aspartic acid D. Methionine
28). Flagella of prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells differ in A. Location in cell and mode of functioning B. Microtubular organization and type of movement C. MicroTubular organization and functioning D. Type of movement and placement in cell
29). Cell recognition and adhesion is facilitated by certain Components of the cell membrane. These components are generally A. Proteins and Lipids B. Glycoproteins and glycolipids C. Lipids only D. Proteins only
30). Golgi apparatus takes part in A. Carbohydrate synthesis B. Lipid synthesis C. Protein synthesis D. Oxidative phosphorylation
31). “Taxonomy without phylogeny is like bones without flesh” was remarked by A. John Hutchinson B. Takhtajan C. Oswald Tippo D. Bentham and Hooker
32). What is universal for sponges? A. Marine B. Calcareous spicules C. Radial symmentry D. High regenerative power
33). The mesogloea is A. Party cellular and partly fibrous B. Neither cellular nor fibrous C. Only fibrous D. Cellular
34). When cysticerci are present in pork it is called A. Cysticercosis B. Bladder worm C. Hydatid cyst D. Measly pork
35). The roundworm can be called specialized and not degenerate with reference to parasitism because A. It has a thick cuticle over its body which is resistant to the digestive juice of the host B. It has a straight and uncoiled alimentary canal C. Respiratory organs are absent D. It is dioecious
36). Nephridia of earthworm are analogous to A. Trachea of insects B. Gills of prawn C. Nematoblasts of Hydra D. Flame cells of Dugesia
37). What is common between silverfish, Scorpion, crab and honey bee? A. Compound eye B. Poison gland’ C. Jointed legs D. Metamorphosis
38). Among the following, an unmatched group is A. Sea pen, sea fan, coral and swimming bell B. Cuttle fish, shell fish, devil fish and squid C. Sea star, sea urchin, sea anemone and sea cow D. Globe fish, rat fish, gold fish and pipe fish
39). Autotomy is observed in A. Feather star B. Starfish C. Sea Cucumber D. Starfish and Feather Star
40). The heart of fishes is called venous or branchial heart because A. The heart sends blood to veins B. The heart contains only non aerated venous blood C. The heart contains only aerated venous blood D. The heart sends aerated blood to gills
41). Which of the following is Lucas reagent? A. ZnCl2/con HCL B. Br2/CCL4 C. Ammoniacal silver nitrate D. Cold Alkaline KMnO4
42). Which one of the following compounds converts Methyl magnesium Iodide to methane in one step? A. C2H4 B. C2H5CL C. C2H5OC2H5 D. C2H5OH
43). The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0 0C is A. 5.260cal/(molK) B. 0.526cal/(molK) C. 10.52cal/(molK) D. 21.04cal/molK)
44). Substance which is used to bring down the temperature in high fever condition are called A. Antiseptics B. Anti-Inflammatory C. Anti-bodies D. Antipyretics
45). The density (in gmL”1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid the solution that is 29% H2SO4(molar mass=98 g mol-1) by mass will be A. 1.64 B. 1.88 C. 1.22 D. 1.95
46). In the equation of state of an ideal gas PV=n RT, the value of the Universal gas constant would depend only on A. The nature of the gas B. The pressure of the gas C. The units of the measurement D. None of the above
47). The value of ∆H and S of a certain reaction is -400 kj mol-1 and -20 kj Mol-1 K-1 respectively. The temperature below which the reaction is spontaneous is A. 200K B. 200c C. 1000K D. 1200C
48). XeF2 is isostructural with A. ICl2- B. SbCl3 C. BaCl2 D. TeF2
49). What amount of dioxygen (in gram) contains 1.8 1022 molecules? A. 0.0960 B. 0.960 C. 9.60 D. 96.0
50). 10g of hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. The amount of water produced in this reaction will be A. 1mol B. 2mol C. 3mol D. 4mol
51). What is the quantity of electricity (in coulombs) required to deposit all the silver from 250ml of 1 M AgNO3 solution? (Ag=108) A. 2412.5 B. 24125 C. 4825.0 D. 48250
52). How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion? A. Six B. Three C. One D. Two
53). Which of the following types of metals from The most efficient catalysts? A. Alkaline earth metals B. Transition metals C. Alkali metals D. All of the above
54). The solubility of Ca3(PC4)2 in water is Y moles/litre. Its solubility product is A. 6y4 B. 36y4 C. 64y5 D. 108y5
55). Which of the following is not permissible? A. n=4, I=3, m=0 B. n=4, I=2, m=1 C. n=4, I=4, m=1 D. n=4, I=0, m=0
56). What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane? A. 1-Bromo-I, I-diethylmethane B. 3-Bromopentane C. 1-Bromo-I-ethypropane D. 1-Bromopentane
57). Chlorobenzene is formed by the reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction? A. Cl- B. Cl+ C. Alcl3 D. [AlCl4]-
58). Which of the following statements about primary Amines are ‘False’? A. Alkylamines are stronger bases than aryl amines B. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols C. Aryl amines are stronger bases than ammonia D. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce nitroarenes
59). The correct order of decreasing acid strength of Tricholoroacetic acid (A), acetic aicd (B) and formic acid (C) is A. A>B>C B. A>C>B C. B>A>C D. B>C>A
60). In which of the following reactions new carbon-carbon bond is formed A. Cannizzaro reaction B. Wurtz reaction C. Aldol condensation D. Friedel-Crafts reaction
61). Which one of the following is a covalent crystal? A. Ice B. Rock Salt C. Dry salt D. Quartz
62). 2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was synthesized on 1st Jan 2017. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st Mar 2017 (Including both the days) A. 1gm B. 0.5gm C. 0gm D. 0.125gm
63). The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate=K [A]n[B]m. on doubling the concentration of B, The ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be A. m+n B. n+m C. 2(n-m) D. I/(2m+n)
64). Bond order of the following molecules is zero? A. F2 B. O2 C. Be2 D. Li2
65). For the adsorption phenomenon, A. ∆H = +ve, ∆S = -ve B. ∆H = -ve, ∆S = +ve C. ∆H = -ve, ∆S = -ve D. ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve
66). Heterosis is A. Phenotypic expression of mutations B. Method of including mutations C. Superiority of hybrids over their parents D. A plant Disease
67). Which of the following chemical is mostly used for protoplast fusion: A. Polyethene glycol B. Sodium acetate C. Sodium chloride D. Sorbitol
68). The carting capacity of the population is determined by: A. Growth rate of population B. Limiting resources C. Mortality D. Natality
69). The biogeochemical cycle which is not gaseous is: A. Phosphorous cycle B. Carbon cycle C. Sulphur cycle D. Nitrogen cycle
70). Conservation within natural habitat is: A. In-situ conservation B. Ex-situ conservation C. In-vitro conservation D. Micropropagation
71). If a cell is placed in a sugar solution and no change occurs in it, the external solution is: A. Isotonic B. Hypertonic C. Hypotonic D. Colloidal
72). In angiosperms, translocation of sugar occurs in the form of: A. Sucrose B. Starch C. Lactose D. Glucose
73). Which of the following plant hormone stimulates growth in internodes? A. Auxins B. Gibberellins C. Cytokinin D. Abscisic acid
74). Embryo sac develops from: A. Microspore B. Megaspore C. Zygote D. Funiculus
75). Formation of seedless fruits is called: A. Parthenocarpy B. Parthenogenesis C. Fertilization D. Geitonogamy
76). The ratio of tall plants in a cross between heterozygous tall plants and dwarf plants will be: A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
77). Codon is made up of: A. Singel nucleotide B. Two nucleotides C. Three nucleotides D. Four nucleotides
78). The enzyme which joins Okazaki fragments is A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase II C. RNA polymerase D. Reverse transcriptase
79). Cheese is produced by: A. Fermentation B. Hydrolysis C. Dehydration D. All of the above
80). Ethanol is commercially produced by using species of : A. Alternaria B. Candida C. Saccharomyces D. Puccinia
81). Which of the following are called stone cells? A. Sclereids B. Parenchyma C. Collenchymas D. Chlorenchyma
82). Which of the following is not correct? A. Diffusion is a passive process B. No energy expenditure occurs during diffusion C. Diffusion is dependent on the living system D. Diffusion rates are affected by gradient of concentration
83). Which of the following is correct for active transport? A. It does not require special B. It is not selective C. It operates without using energy D. It results in uphill transport
84). How many electrons are released from water to release one molecule of oxygen during photosynthesis A. Four B. Six C. Two D. One
85). Apical dominance occurs due to: A. Auxins B. Cytokinins C. Gibberellins D. Abscisic acid
86). The innermost layer of anther is A. Endothecium B. Exothecium C. Tapetum D. Stomium
87). When pistils are fused together, it is called A. Syncarpous B. Apocarpous C. Multicarpellary D. Monocarpellary
88). To identify whether an organism exhibiting a dominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous for a specific allele, which cross is performed? A. Dihybrid cross B. Test cross C. Back cross D. Back cross E. None of the above
89). Cork cambium is also called A. Phellem B. Phelloderm C. Periderm D. Phellogen
90). The force which exists between the walls of xylem vessels and water is: A. Adhesion B. Cohesion C. Surface tension D. Capillary force
91). The correct sequence in taxonomic classification is: A. Class-family-order-genus-species B. Class-order-family-genus-species C. Order-family-class-genus-species D. Class-family-order-genus-species
92). Heterotrophic fungi which absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates are called A. Saprophytes B. Parasites C. Symbionts D. Autotrophs
93). Name ‘virus’ was coined by A. Huxley B. Robert Hook C. Lvanowsky D. Beijernick
94). Viroid consists of: A. DNA B. RNA C. Carbohydrate D. Protein
95). Food is stored as mannitol and laminarin in A. Rhodophyceace B. Chlorophyceace C. Phaeophyceace D. Chlamydomonas
96). Which of the following statements regarding bryophytes are not correct? A. The main body of bryophyte is haploid B. Antheridia develop on the main body C. The main body is sporophyte D. Sporophyte draws nutrition from the gametophyte
97). In mosses protonema is A. The last stage of gametophyte B. The first stage of gametophyte C. The leafy stage of moss D. Does not exist in the moss life cycle
98). Diplontic life cycle is present in: A. Gymnosperms B. Angiosperms C. Volvox D. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
99). Fascicular vascular cambium is A. A lateral meristem B. Apical meristem C. Also called cork cambium D. A permanent tissue
100). Which of the following are living cells? A. Vessels B. Tracheids C. Xylem fibres D. Xylem parenchyma
BSc Nursing Previous year question Paper PDF, Download Nursing Entrance old paper.
JAMMU: The Jammu and Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examinations(JKBOPEE) has released the official notification for the 2023 session, the notification carries official entrance exam dates, result dates, counselling dates and application/registration form dates.
The official notification of which a copy also lies with the JKYouth Newspaper reads:
The tentative schedule for various Entrance Tests/Examinations and Counsellings to be conducted by the J&K BOPEE for admission to various Professional Courses during the Academic Session 2023-24 is hereby notified for information of the general public and especially for intending candidates:-
10th Based Paramedical Diploma Courses (FMPHW/MMPHW)
17-05-2023
25-06-2023
To be notified separately.
12thBased Para-Medical Diploma Courses:- Medical Assistant, Laboratory Assistant D. Pharma etc. GNM Courses ANM Courses Medical Record Technician Course.
27-05-2023
11-06-2023
To be notified separately.
M.Sc. Nursing Course
To be notified separately.
To be notified separately.
To be notified separately.
M.Sc. Tech. Courses.
To be notified separately.
//
To be notified separately.
B. Architecture
To be notified separately as per date notified by Council of Architect, Govt., of India.
//
To be notified separately.
Name of the Course
Date for submission ofapplication
Last date forsubmission ofapplication
Tentative date for conduct of Entrance Test
PGDRP
To be notified separately.
To be notified separately.
To be notified separately.
B. Pharmacy
To be notified separately as per date notified by Pharmacy Council of India (PCI).
//
//
MBBS BDS AYUSH BPT DDH DDM
To be notified separately by Govt., of India.
//
To be conducted by NTA
MD/MS/MDS/PGD
//
//
To be conducted by NBE
DNB Courses (For in-service candidates only )
//
//
//
MD/MS Ayurveda
//
//
To be conducted by NTA
Note
The B.Sc Technology and Medical Record Technician (MRT) courses are available only in SKIMS, Soura, Srinagar while Postgraduate Diploma in Rehabilitation Programme (PGDRP) is at CRC, Bemina Srinagar.
The above schedule has been notified only to provide information to the general public/ candidates in advance and is purely tentative and is subject to change(s) as may be deemed necessary by the Board.
The counselling for NEET-PG/NEET-UG including DNB and DDH/DDM/BAMS/ BUMS/BPT courses shall depend upon declaration of results by National Board of Examinations/National Testing Agency as the case may be.
The candidates in their own interest are advised to visit the BOPEE website.
www.jkbopee.gov.infor daily updates. The Information Bulletins/Brochures shall be made available on the BOPEE website in due course of time before the start of submission of online preferences/registration
Conduct of allotment counselling (Physical) for admission to Post Basic B. Sc Nursing Courses-2021.
JKBOPEE Post Basic BSc Nursing Counselling for admission in Nursing colleges across Jammu and Kashmir.
applied for admission to Post-Basic B. Sc Nursing Courses-2021, and advised the candidates to submit their deficient documents physically at BOPEE Office Srinagar / Jammu up to 31-08-2021. In response, the Board received documents that were examined and the merit list accordingly updated.
Now, it is hereby notified for information of all the eligible concerned candidates that the Board shall conduct Physical Round of Counselling of candidates on the date given below:
22 – 10 – 2021
Rank 01-262
All Candidates Including all categories candidates
JKBopee Post Basic BSc Nursing Counselling Guidelines
Candidates shall have to report at BOPEE offices Jammu/Srinagar physically for registration/attendance & fulfillment of other formalities between 08:30 A.M. to 10:30 A.M. ranks wise on 22-10-2021 for their counselling.
Candidates are advised to bring along their Domicile Certificate issued by the Competent Authority & other relevant Certificates/documents as applicable to be presented at the time of Counselling.
The Board reserves the right to notify any changes as may become necessary in view of any technical difficulty or the reasons beyond its control.
All the candidates who will report for physical counselling at BOPEE offices Jammu/ Srinagar are advised to adhere strictly to the SOP’s / guidelines issued by the Government of J&K from time to time regarding COVID-19.
The seat matrix shall be uploaded separately in due course of time before counselling
For latest updates related to the counseling and availability of seats, the
candidates are advised to remain in touch with the website of the Board
(www.jkbopee.gov.in).
Any candidate who may not be able to attend the counselling personally
owing to a valid reason can authorize a person (through Authority Letter-on
prescribed format) from his/her family member to participate in the
counselling on his/her behalf at BOPEE offices Jammu/Srinagar on the
day/date of counselling as per his/her Rank.
The candidates provisionally selected for this course are advised to contact
concerned College/Institute for admission and other requisite formalities.
JKBOPEE Post Basic BSc Nursing Counselling 2021 update
The Syllabus for JKBOPEE BSc Nursing Syllabus 2021 includes all the chapters of Biology, Chemistry, & Physics from Class 11th and Class 12th.
Download BSc Nursing BOPEE Syllabi PDF.
JKBOPEE Eligibility For BSc Nursing and Technology Programme
The candidates applying for admission to B.Sc. Nursing Programme must fulfil the following eligibility conditions.
A candidate must be a domicile of J&K.
Candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh, ST certificate issued by Competent Authority of Ladakh shall be treated as Domicile certificate.
be at least 17 years old on 31st December-2020.
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination individually in the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English and must have obtained a minimum of 45% marks taken together in PCB subjects from Recognised Board.
be medically fit.
The candidates appearing/appeared in 10+2 (12th Class) examination 2021 are also eligible.
BSc Nursing JKBOPEE | The Common Entrance Test for BSc Nursing through NTA | JKBOPEE is scheduled to be conducted at various centers in Jammu and Srinagar.
BOPEE: Board of Professional Entrance Examinations;
CET: common Entrance Test;
NOC: No Objection Certificate;
DA: Designated Authority;
COE: Controller of Examinations;
OM: Open Merit candidates;
SC: Scheduled Caste candidates;
ST: Scheduled Tribe candidates;
RBA: Resident of Backward Area;
ALC: the Actual Line of Control;
OSC: Other Social Castes;
Guidelines for BSc Nursing Entrance Test:
submit an online Application Form available on the official website of the NTA/NEET within the prescribed date.
The candidates applying for admission will be required to appear in the Entrance Test at their own expenses, furthermore
The recommendation for selection of the candidates in all the categories shall be subject to production of all the relevant certificates in original by the candidates and the verification of the same by the BOPEE/College.
The selection made by the BOPEE to these courses shall be provisional till the final determination of eligibility of the candidates by the concerned Board/ College.
Eligibility For BSc Nursing Programme by NTA / JKBOPEE:
The candidates applying for admission to B.Sc. The nursing Programme must fulfill the following eligibility conditions.
A candidate must be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT of Ladakh.
Candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh, ST certificate issued by Competent Authority of Ladakh shall be treated as Domicile certificate.
be at least 17 years old on 31st December-2020.
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination individually in the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English and must have obtained a minimum of 45% marks taken together in PCB subjects from Recognised Board.
be medically fit.
The candidates appearing/appeared in 10+2 (12th Class) examination 2020 can also apply.
BOPEE Post Basic Nursing details:
A candidate must be a domicile of UT of J&K or UT of Ladakh.
For Candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh, the ST certificate issued by the Competent Authority of Ladakh shall be treated as a Domicile certificate.
The candidates have to upload the following original scanned documents with their online Application Form:-
domicile of J&K/Ladakh, the candidate can upload undertaking certifying that he/she shall submit the same at the time of counseling). For candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh, the ST certificate issued by Competent Authority shall be treated as a domicile certificate.
marks certificate of the qualifying examination i.e. 10+2 (as mentioned above) issued by the concerned Board.
matriculation or equivalent examination certificate indicating Date of Birth.
the category candidates claiming the benefit of any reserved category Diploma registered with J&K Para-medical Council ( For candidates applying under lateral entry).
The candidates have to upload a recent Photo, a Scanned copy of the Signature, and Thumb Impression also.
BSc Nursing Admit Card:
No candidate shall be allowed to enter the Test Centre/venue without a valid Admit Card in the original.
Admit cards can be downloaded within the prescribed date.
The Admit Cards will be available online. The candidates are advised to download their Admit Cards from the NEET official Websites.
Once NTA releases the Admit Cards we will Update the Download Link below here.
Who will conduct the BSc Nursing examination, JKBOPEE or NTA?
NTA/NEET.
How to Submit BSc Nursing / NEET Form?
Follow the instructions given in this blog.
Who is eligible for the BSc Nursing entrance exam?
A candidate must be a domicile of UT of J&K/UT of Ladakh. Candidates belonging to UT of Ladakh, ST certificate issued by Competent Authority of Ladakh shall be treated as Domicile certificate. be at least 17 years old on 31st December-2020. 10+2 or equivalent examination individually in the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English and must have obtained a minimum of 45% marks taken together in PCB subjects from Recognized Board.
(a).Date of Commencement for Submission of online application forms = 01-07-2020
(b). Last date for submission of online application forms = 27-07-2020
Online applications on prescribed format are invited from the eligible domiciles of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir for various posts as mentioned in the Annexure-“A” to this notification, in terms of Jammu and Kashmir Probationer (Condition of Service, Pay and Allowances) and Fixation of Tenure Rules, 2020 notified vide S.O – 192 of 2020 dated: 17.06.2020.
Age as on 01.01.2020 in terms of SRO-165 of 2014, Dated: June 9th, 2014: –
Minimum = 18 years.
Maximum:-
40 years for general category candidates.
40 years in case of candidates already in Government service/contractual employees.
42 years in case of physically challenged (Specially Abled) candidates.
43 years in case of Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe candidates, RBA, EWS’s, ALC/IB, PSP & Social Caste.
48 years in the case of Ex-Servicemen.
Note:-
In respect of in-service SKIMS employees, the upper age limit shall be determined in terms of Government Order No. 09-SKIMS of 2013, Dated: 08.03.2013.
Instructions for applying online:-
The necessary instruction for filling-up of online application form and submission of fees details shall be available on SKIMS website, skims.ac.in.
A link for filling of online application form shall be available on the official website of Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences, Soura w.e.f: 01-07-2020 to 27-07-2020.
Candidates are required to apply online through the official website of Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences skims.ac.in.
The application forms for the posts mentioned in Annexure –“A” shall be filled online along with scanned copies of requisite Certificates/ Documents, to be uploaded in (*.jpeg, *.jpg, *.tiff , .gif) format on SKIMS website (skims.ac.in) only and no other mode of submission of application form shall be entertained.
The candidates are required to upload the images of recent photograph, signature and thumb impression specimen, which should be uploaded only in (*.jpeg, *.jpg, *.tiff. ) formats.
Size of the photograph (passport size) must be between 50kb to 100kb
Size of the signature and thumb impression must be between 30kb to 60kb.
The candidature of the applicants, who have not uploaded the requisite documents in the online application form as per the prescribed criterion, or have uploaded blurred/ unreadable documents shall be rejected without any notice.
The last date for the submission of online application forms as prescribed above shall also be the cut-off date for determining the eligibility for the post.
Candidate’s Application will not be considered, if the fee is not paid and the details not entered in the provided specific space.
Candidates must take a printout of the fee receipt after successful filling of the application form.
Fees of application 500 (Five Hundred only), plus service charges over and above the prescribed fees as applicable for each of the advertised posts mentioned in Annexure- A to this notice can be paid in any Branch of J&K Bank besides through Net Banking / Debit Card/ Credit Card (under online option).
Candidates cannot edit their application form after submission.
Candidates shall ensure that their email ID’s and phone numbers as specified in the online application form are active during the currency of recruitment process.
Candidates should not submit a printout of the application/fee payment receipt to SKIMS at this stage, however, the candidates shall submit the downloaded printout of the application forms along with the fee payment receipts and attested copies of requisite certificates as and when SKIMS may call for submission of such documents.
The in-service candidates/contractual employees shall submit a photocopy of filled online application forms Through Proper Channel (TPC) viz. duly under the seal and signature of the concerned Head of Department/ Institution. In the event of failure of the candidates to route the application Through Proper Channel (TPC), his/her eligibility shall be assessed as if he/she is not an in-service candidate. The Head of Department/ Institution concerned shall forward the application forms of the in-service candidates to the office of Administrative Officer, (Policy), SKIMS, Soura, 190011 within 10 days after the last date of filing of the application forms.
The candidate must produce the original Qualification/Category Certificates/ Bonafide certificates in case of qualifications obtained outside the Union Territory of J & K as and when SKIMS may call for such documents, so that their eligibility for participation in the written test / interview/ physical test, wherever applicable or any other test is verified. Any candidate who fails to produce the relevant documents/ testimonials on the scheduled date of such test shall not be allowed to appear.
The vacancies have been earmarked in terms of amendments made in Jammu & Kashmir Reservation Rules, 2005 notified vide S.O 127 ,dated 20.04.2020. The horizontal reservation for Ex-Serviceman and Physically Challenged (Specially Abled) persons to the extent of 6 % and 4 % respectively means the reservation which would cut across the vertical reservation and the persons selected shall have to be placed in the appropriate category by making necessary adjustments. In respect of Physically Handicapped (Specially Abled) persons, the reservation shall be available only for services/ posts specified under section 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 to the extent specified therein.
The selection on the posts mentioned in the Annexure-A to this notification shall be made in terms of the provisions laid down in S.O 180, dated: May 28, 2020, or the rules and regulation framed by the Government from time to time.
Candidates, who are eligible to apply for more than one post are required to apply separately for each post.
Please note that the above procedure is the only valid procedure for applying to any specific post, no other mode of application would be accepted and incomplete application/s will be rejected.
No TA/ DA will be paid for participation in the Trade Test/ written test/ interview.
Item No.
Name of the Post
Total Posts
OM
RBA
Sch. Caste
ST
EWS’s
ALC/IB
PSP
SC
Recruitment Rule
1.
Nutrition EducationistLevel-6E (35900-113500)
03
01
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
M.Sc. Food and Nutrition from a Recognized UniversityDesirable: Experience in Health and Nutrition Studies or Research Products in the field after Postgraduation
2.
Junior AssistantLevel-4 (25500-81100)
15
07
02
02
01
01
01
01
X
i. Graduation from any Recognized University with Knowledge of Type writing having not less than 35 words speed per Minute;ii. Six Months Certificate Course in Computer Application from a recognized Institute
3.
Electronic Mechanic G-IVLevel-2 (19900-63200)
02
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
Matric with ITI in relevant field
4.
Lift MechanicLevel-4 (25500-81100)
02
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
Matric with ITI in Electric Trade
5.
Painter AutomobileLevel-4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Matric with ITI in requisite Trade
6.
DraftsmanLevel-4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
2 years Draftsman Training Course Certificate/Diploma from any Government recognized Institution
7.
Works Supervisor G-IVLevel-2 (19900-63200)
02
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
Matric and having ITI in respective Trade
8.
Technician (Medical Group)Level-4 (25500-81100)
24
12
03
02
02
02
01
01
01
B. Sc (Medical Technology)
9.
Technician (Theatre Group)Level-4 (25500-81100)
24
12
03
02
02
02
01
01
01
B. Sc (Theatre Technology)
10.
Technician Profusionist Level- 4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
B.Sc. Profusion Technology.
11.
Technician (Burn Unit)Level-4 (25500-81100)
04
02
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
B. Sc (Theatre Technology)
12.
Physiotherapist (Burn Unit)Level-4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
B.Sc. in Physiotherapy and Registration from Rehabilitation Council of India/IAP (Indian Association of Physiotherapy)
B.Sc. in Physiotherapy and Registration from Rehabilitation Council of India/IAP (Indian Association of Physiotherapy)
15.
Junior ArtistLevel 4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
B.A in Fine ArtsOR10+2 with Diploma in Fine Arts
16.
Assistant CameramenLevel 4 (25500-81100)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
10+2 with Diploma in Still Photography/Cinematography from Recognized Institute
17.
Staff Nurse G-IILevel 6D (35800-113200)
25
13
03
02
02
02
01
01
01
B.Sc. Nursing/Post -Basic Nursing
18.
Jr. Engineer (Laundry)Level 6D (35800-113200)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
B.E (Chemical Engineering)
19.
Assistant Cook G-IILevel-4 (25500-81100)
22
10
03
02
02
02
01
01
01
10+ 2 Qualification with 1½ year Diploma Course in Food Production from Institute of Hotel Management and Catering Technology or any other Institution recognized by Govt. with two years’ experience in a registered Hotel/ Catering Institution / Hospital.
20.
StewardLevel-2 (19900-63200)
07
04
01
01
01
X
X
X
X
10+ 2 Qualification and Diploma (1 ½ or more years) in Food and Beverage Service (for Stewards) from Institute of Hotel Management and Catering Technology or any other Institution recognized by Govt. with two years’ experience.
21.
*Junior Pharmacist G-IILevel -4 (25500-81100)
07
04
01
01
01
X
X
X
X
B. Pharmacy from an Institute recognized by Government.*Note:-These vacancies are in addition to the vacancies notified vide advertisement notice no. 02 of 2018, Dated: 23-07-2018, for which selection is under process.
22.
Technician (Radiation Group)Level-4 (25500-81100)(Dept. of Radio-Diagnosis & Imaging)
Degree/AMIE (with Section A&B India )OR 3 years Diploma in Electronic and Communication Engineering from Government recognized Institution/ Indian University.
24.
Supervisor TechnicalLevel-6D (35800-113200)
01
01
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Degree/ AMIE (Section A&B) India in the Telecommunication/ Electronic EngineeringOR3 years Diploma in Telecommunication Engineering; OR3 Years Diploma in Electronic Engineering with knowledge of Telecommunication Engineering.
i. Matriculation;ii. Diploma in Telecommunication or Electronic Engineering recognized by the State Board of Technical Education.iii. Five years’ Experience in the field .
B.Sc. (Medical Microbiology). * Note: Among the (03) posts, (02) posts are earmarked for candidates possessing B.Sc. (OT) & (01) post for candidates possessing B.Sc.(Medical Microbiology).
28.
Medical Record AssistantLevel -2 ( 19900-63200)
10
05
1
1
1
1
1
X
X
i. 10+ 2 Qualificationii. Diploma in Medical Records from an Institution recognized by DGHS, New Delhi/ Government of J & K.iii. Six months Certificate Course in Computers.
